So we have a group of Science teachers who …

Comment on Hope? Slim to none by Shirley.

So we have a group of Science teachers who believe that there is SCIENCE and FAITH structures for creation. Now they say they have always believed the FAITH model, but they teach SCIENCE. If they believed (as in BELIEF) the Biblical creation model, they would already have been teaching it.
Insofar as I DISBELIEVE that they actually BELIEVE in creation, I would not trust them to give the faith model a fair shake! When it comes to FAITH, you can only share what you HAVE!

Shirley Also Commented

Hope? Slim to none
Science is a bunch of conclusions formed as a result of experiments being interpreted based on previous or chosen world-view. Is this not true?

There is such a thing as Creation Science which well supports the Creationist Model. For anyone who is faith-based, why are they rejecting THAT science? Science is evidence interpreted. So what are you looking for?

There will always be questions. Neither Creation nor Evolution answer every question, so which so-called science will YOU choose?

I do not understand everything, but I believe the Bible.


Recent Comments by Shirley

Northern California Conference Votes to Act Independent of the General Conference
Much enjoyment of someone’s excellent humor in writing the 10 Reasons a Man Should Not Be Ordained. Thanks for posting.


Northern California Conference Votes to Act Independent of the General Conference
Thank you, Sean, for replying to my query on Gen 3 and 4. I have read the NIV, but put less stock in NIV than KJV, which has a better reputation in our circles. IF the NIV translation applies in Gen 4:7 – that “sin is crouching at the door; and its desire is for you, but you must master it.” Then is it fair to assume that Gen. 3:16 also means that “you shall desire your husband, but he will master you.”
Is the same Heb. language used in both texts? I don’t know Biblical languages.

I do believe in the principle of Eph. 5:21, as well as 5:22, etc.
Somewhere in EGW I received the idea that God wants to bring us back to the stated relationship that originated in the Garden. Restore the Sabbath; restore the pre-fall marriage relationship. Sin causes tension, separation and bitterness… The closer we come to Jesus, the less desire we shall have to dominate each other. Harmony between the sexes can exist when we (self) is hid in Christ. Domination of one human by another human of either sex is to interpose self between God and mankind, who is to be our true Master. A gentle leader (husband) will inspire a submitting wife.

Thank you for reading, and perhaps responding as you see fit.


Northern California Conference Votes to Act Independent of the General Conference
Sean Pitman: Thank you for your explanations and referring to quotes from God’s word in its various forms. I have read the Equality statements in EGW and understand the Bible quotations that indicate that truly ‘in Christ there is neither male nor female.” I still have a question about the Genesis statements found in Gen. 3:16 and Gen. 4:7. I read this in the KJV, and have never heard anyone address this comparison TD.

Both verses say basically the same thing. When I read it, I thought, Whoa! I never saw THAT before.
3:16 – …”her desire shall be to her husband, and he shall rule over thee.”
4:7 – …”your (Abel) desire shall be to him (Cain), and he (Cain) shall rule over thee.” (Abel).

I have heard a husband say that in 3:16 God commanded the husband to rule over the wife (after all, she was deceived and fell first. [implication])

When I read 4:7 and saw that the same verbiage was used, it did not make sense to e that God would have COMMANDED Cain – evil – to rule over Abel – good. I now understand this structure to mean, as a RESULT of sin in the heart, the stronger may take advantage of the weak, and seek to dominate. There is where EGW says NEITHER should seek to dominate the other, for it destroys love.

I also noticed in Genesis that God gave THEM dominion, repeated twice in the same chapter. I have always heard it said that God gave Adam dominion. ‘Adam’ was used like a family name, Mr. & Mrs. Adam.

Am I misunderstanding or misinterpreting the scripture meaning of Gen 3:16 and 4:7?


Northern California Conference Votes to Act Independent of the General Conference
@Henry C Hills: Greetings, Brother. I am interested in your possible comparison between the two texts: Genesis 3:16 with Genesis 4:7. Both texts in KJV follow a very similar phrase pattern. One is between Adam and Eve; the other between Cain and Abel. I have heard that in 3:16 ‘he shall rule over’ [Eve] was a command of God as punishment for disobedience and the fall. In Gen 4:7, the ‘he shall rule over’ statement is the DISOBEDIENT shall rule over the OBEDIENT. I can hardly believe that it is a command of God for evil to rule over good; yet the phrase is so nearly the same in both texts as to demand the same application. Is it not that God is describing the result of sin now residing in the heart that causes the stronger to try to control and dominate the weaker? That would fit both scenarios, would it not?
Both texts basically say, ‘your desire shall be to [him] and he shall rule over you.’ which is NOT a command, but a result of the sinful nature.


Northern California Conference Votes to Act Independent of the General Conference
Ultimately, if we cannot grasp the plain “thus saith the LORD” of the Bible, and base our doctrines thereon, we have no possibility of finding “unity.”@Tongkam:

What you say about basing doctrine upon Bible is true. It seems to follow that, where there is no clear ‘Thus says the Lord,’ we should have no doctrine. To create a doctrine where there is no direct instruction appears to be ADDING to the Holy Scriptures.

The same seems true, also, of the 3 GC statements, which basically were non-statements based on a lack of ‘Thus saith the Lord,” which morphed into prohibition without any decisive basis.